How Much Blood? | STILL BLEEDING | Something funny is growing | anything goes |
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You are seeing a 8-week-old infant after a visit to an urgent care center (UCC). He was born at full term after an uncomplicated pregnancy. His mother brought him to the UCC for evaluation of congestion. His physical examination was normal and he underwent some blood tests. He was discharged and returned to your office today for follow-up.
Tests performed at the UCC showed a hemoglobin of 11.4 g/dL (114 g/L), with a normal mean corpuscular volume for age, a reticulocyte count of 0.4%, normal direct and indirect bilirubin levels, and a negative direct antibody test. The rest of the laboratory findings were unremarkable. The assistant working with you noted that the infant’s hemoglobin was 15.2 g/dL (152 g/L) at birth, and asks what caused the marked drop in hemoglobin over a short period.
What is physiological anemia of infancy?
As the fetus develops, the erythropoietin levels rise, with the highest levels occurring in the final trimester. Erythropoiesis is directly driven by erythropoietin, and as a consequence, a significant portion of the red blood cell mass is produced in the final trimester of pregnancy. Upon birth, blood oxygen levels suddenly increase with the onset of breathing, closure of the ductus arteriosus, and transition of the newborn from the relatively hypoxic environment of the amniotic sac to oxygen-rich room air. Renal oxygen tension sensors detect this sudden rise in oxygen levels, and in response, downregulate hypoxia-inducible factors, which in turn, downregulate the production of erythropoietin. This results in a slowly decreasing hemoglobin for several weeks after birth, known as the physiologic nadir of infancy. In full-term infants, the hemoglobin typically reaches a nadir of approximately 11 g/dL (110 g/L) at 8 to 12 weeks after birth. Other factors that can lead to anemia in the neonatal period include phlebotomy for frequent blood tests in sick neonates, a reduced lifespan for the red blood cells, and iron depletion. A number of factors in the vignette suggest that the drop in hemoglobin is not caused by hemolysis. These include the low reticulocyte count, negative direct antibody test, and the normal direct and indirect bilirubin levels. Therefore, maternal-fetal ABO incompatibility, maternal-fetal Rh incompatibility, and red blood cell membrane defects are incorrect responses. As discussed, the rapid increase in blood oxygen levels at birth result in a drop in erythropoietin levels after birth, causing a gradual drop in hemoglobin. |
A 9-day-old Jewish newborn is brought to your office for evaluation of bleeding at his circumcision site. He was born at term via a cesarean delivery for failure to progress after an uncomplicated pregnancy. He was discharged from the hospital on the second day after birth. On the eighth day after birth, a ritual circumcision was performed by a certified mohel (expert in the Jewish rite of circumcision). Since that time, there has been continuous and significant bleeding at the circumcision site, requiring a change of blood-soaked bandages every 2 hours. There is no family history of bleeding disorders. The newborn’s physical examination is remarkable only for mild pallor and a continuously oozing, circumferential circumcision wound around the glans of the penis. A complete blood cell count is normal. His prothrombin time is 12 seconds and partial thromboplastin time is 85 seconds. His von Willebrand antigen is 90% (normal range, 50%–150%) and von Willebrand activity is 95% (normal range, 50%–150%).
What is the common mode of inheritance of this disease?
What is x-linked recessive?
The prolonged bleeding after circumcision in the newborn in the vignette suggests a congenital bleeding disorder. The formation of a functional clot requires 2 components, fibrin and platelets. Fibrin is the end-product of the coagulation cascade. The absence of any of the coagulation cascade factors can result in failure to form a clot and is associated with a prolonged prothrombin time (PT) or partial thromboplastin time (PTT). Prothrombin time and PTT are effective measures of the functionality and presence of the components of coagulation cascade, except for the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin. The patient’s prolonged PTT suggests an absence or dysfunction of a factor in the coagulation cascade. The gene for factor VIII is found on the X chromosome and is the subject of frequent spontaneous mutations. The deficiency of factor VIII is known as hemophilia A. Given that the child is male and therefore subject to X-linked disorders, factor VIII deficiency is the most likely diagnosis. Factor XIII is responsible for clot stabilization. Since it plays a role after the formation of a clot, an absence of factor XIII would not prolong the PT or PTT; those are measures of the time to clot formation, not clot stabilization |
A 6-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with pallor, leg pain, and bruising. The results of a complete blood cell count are shown:
White blood cell count 11,600/µL (11.6 x 109/L) Hemoglobin 7.2 g/dL (72 g/L) Platelet count 67 x 103/µL (67 x 109/L) % neutrophils 3% % leukemic blasts 26% How would you tell a lymphoid blast from a myeloid blast?
What is flow cytometry?
Flow cytometry maps the surface antigens on cells. The cells are incubated with antibodies to surface markers that are conjugated to fluorochromes. After incubation, the cells are drawn in a single file through the flow cytometer in which various lasers hit the cells. If the wavelength of light emitted by the laser excites the fluorochrome conjugated to the antibody, a different wavelength of light is emitted by the fluorochrome that can be detected by the flow cytometer. If that second wavelength is detected, then the targeted surface marker is present on the cell. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia and AML have markedly different patterns of surface markers, making flow cytometry an effective way to rapidly and accurately distinguish between the two. Flow cytometry can also be used to distinguish between different subtypes of ALL, including B and T cell. |
An 18-year-old young man with hemoglobin SS disease presents to the emergency department with a 24-hour history of tactile fever and new-onset shaking chills. He had been previously well. His history is remarkable for 1 admission per year for sickle cell pain crises since he started hydroxyurea 5 years ago. On physical examination, the patient appears somewhat uncomfortable. His temperature is 39.9°C, heart rate is 96 beats/min, respiratory rate is 30 breaths/min, and blood pressure is 90/70 mm Hg. His examination is remarkable for a flow murmur on cardiac examination, but is otherwise normal.
Of the following, based on his presentation, the patient’s MOST likely diagnosis is?
What is Strep pneum sepsis?
The patient in the vignette has presented with signs and symptoms of sepsis, including fever, tachycardia, hypotension, and rigors. It is critical to rapidly recognize sepsis because it can quickly result in disseminated intravascular coagulation and death. Every fever in a child with sickle cell disease should be considered an emergency and treated as bacteremia until proven otherwise. A blood culture should be performed with a complete blood cell count and reticulocyte count, and a broad-spectrum antibiotic (typically a third-generation cephalosporin) should be administered as quickly as possible. Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most frequent causative agent of sepsis in patients with sickle cell disease. Prophylactic daily penicillin in children up to 5 years of age and the use of pneumococcal vaccines have been two of the most significant medical advances for reducing the morbidity and mortality of sickle cell disease. It is important to recognize that even patients who have been taking prophylactic penicillin and have received pneumococcal vaccines can still experience pneumococcal sepsis. |
A 15-year-old adolescent girl presents to your office with a 1-month history of progressive fatigue and exercise intolerance. Her medical history is remarkable for autoimmune thyroiditis for which she takes 112 µg of oral levothyroxine daily. She has recently had normal thyroid stimulating hormone, thyroxine (T4), and free T4 levels. Her physical examination is remarkable only for pallor and reduced sensation on the feet. She specifically denies any history of hematuria, hematochezia, epistaxis, or unusual bruising. She has had a normal diet for age. The results of a complete blood cell count are shown:
White blood cell count 11,000/µL (11.0 x 109/L) Hemoglobin 7.2 g/dL (72 g/L) Mean corpuscular volume 116 fL Platelet count 467 x 103/µL (467 x 109/L) Reticulocyte count 0.5% What is the most likely diagnosis?
What is vit B12 def anemia?
The differential diagnosis of macrocytic anemia in children includes vitamin B12 deficiency, folate deficiency, and bone marrow failure. Folate deficiency is most often dietary, typically in children whose diets rely heavily on goat milk. When vitamin B12 (also called cobalamin) is consumed, it attaches to haptocorrin and travels to the duodenum, where it is hydrolyzed and released from the haptocorrin. The free vitamin B12 then binds to gastric intrinsic factor and travels to the ileum. It is then absorbed in the ileum, enters the blood stream, and binds to transcobalamin. Vitamin B12 deficiency in pediatrics most often occurs either because of an absence of the terminal ileum (where B12 is absorbed), or because of a deficiency of intrinsic factor. The deficiency of intrinsic factor and subsequent vitamin B12 deficiency is called pernicious anemia. Congenital pernicious anemia occurs when there is a genetic defect resulting in hypofunctional or absent intrinsic factor. Pernicious anemia in adolescents typically results from gastric atrophy and achlorhydria caused by antibodies to the parietal cell and intrinsic factor. Left untreated, vitamin B12 deficiency results in a macrocytic anemia, in addition to neurologic symptoms including paresthesias, ataxia, and gait abnormalities, as a result of posterior and lateral spinal column degeneration. Vitamin B12 deficiency can be treated with the parenteral administration of vitamin B12. The patient in the vignette has a medical history remarkable for autoimmunity, suggesting that her macrocytic anemia also has an autoimmune origin. Thus, it is likely that her macrocytic anemia is caused by autoimmune damage to the gastric parietal cells. |
A 2-year-old girl presents to the emergency department with a severe nosebleed that has lasted 2 hours despite pressure applied appropriately to the nose. Her medical history is remarkable for “easy bruising,” frequent nosebleeds, and gum bleeding when brushing her teeth. Her physical examination is remarkable for a steady trickle of blood coming from her right nostril; multiple palpable ecchymoses on her shins bilaterally; and petechiae on the bridge of her nose, under her eyes, and on her arm where a tourniquet had been applied for placement of an intravenous catheter.
Her laboratory results are shown: Laboratory Test Patient Result Prothrombin time 12.2 seconds Partial thromboplastin time 32 seconds Platelet count 203 × 103/μL (203 x 109/L) Blood type A positive von Willebrand antigen 95% (normal range 50%–150%) von Willebrand activity 98% (normal range 50%–150%) The most likely diagnosis is?
What is Glanzmann's thrombasthenia?
The clinical findings seen in the girl in the vignette suggest a congenital bleeding disorder. Of note, she has had unusual bleeding since birth, repeated mucosal bleeding (such as gum bleeding while tooth brushing), palpable bruising, and petechiae. The normal prothrombin time (PT), partial thromboplastin time (PTT), and platelet number effectively rule out disorders of the coagulation cascade or platelet number. It is therefore likely that this girl has a disorder of platelet function. In platelet function disorders, platelets are present, but cannot activate to effectively form a clot. The most common congenital platelet function disorders are Bernard-Soulier syndrome (a disorder of platelet adhesion) and Glanzmann thrombasthenia (a disorder of platelet aggregation). The most appropriate management for life-threatening bleeding in a child with a known or suspected platelet function disorder is to transfuse functional platelets. In VWD: VWF level and/or activity decreased with abnormal ristocetin aggregation In Bernard-soulier's disease,defect in GP IB, mild thrombocytopenia with large platelets and abnormal ristocetin test seen in Glaanzman, genetic GPIIb/3a deficiency with normal ristocetin test seen |
6-year-old boy who has Down syndrome presents with a 2-day history of fever (temperature to 39.0°C) and a painful limp and favoring of his right leg. During the past 2 weeks, he has had decreased appetite, increased pallor, and increased bruises on his upper and lower extremities. Physical examination reveals pallor and multiple ecchymoses on his arms, legs, and trunk. Bilateral cervical and supraclavicular lymph nodes are palpable; the nodes are firm, nontender, and 1 to 2 cm in size. The liver is palpable 3 cm below the right costal margin, and the spleen is palpable 2 cm below the left costal margin. Tenderness is elicited over the right distal femur. Radiographs of the right distal femur reveal osteopenia plus a small lytic lesion. A chest radiograph shows normal results with no mediastinal mass or pulmonary infiltrate. His white blood cell count is 2.8×103/mcL (2.8×109/L) with 10% neutrophils, 5% monocytes, 85% lymphocytes, and no blasts. His hemoglobin measures 8.2 g/dL (82 g/L) and platelet count is 38×103/mcL (38×109/L).
A diagnosis of ALL was finally made and patient was started on induction of remission therapy. What is the most important complication to watch out for following initiation of treatment
What is Tumor lysis syndrome?
PKU C High( Phosphate, Potassium and Urine acid) Low Ca Treat with allopurinol, hyperhydration, alkalinization of urine |
A 3-month-old infant is brought to your office to establish care after having recently immigrated to the United States. On physical examination, you note that her right arm and leg are significantly larger than her left arm and leg, and that the right side of her tongue protrudes from between her lips. She is at the 95th percentile for both weight and height. Her mother reports that she has been breastfeeding without difficulty and has been well since birth.
The 2 most important diseases to closely follow up for is?
What are hepatoblastoma and nephroblastoma?
The infant in the vignette has global macrosomia (95th percentile for height and weight), macroglossia, and hemihyperplasia (an enlarged left side of the body and face). This presentation suggests an overgrowth syndrome such as Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome (BWS). Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome is caused by genetic or epigenetic abnormalities involving chromosome 11p15. Affected children have an increased risk of cancer through age 7 to 8 years, with embryonal tumor types such as hepatoblastoma and nephroblastoma (Wilms tumor) most commonly reported. Given that these embryonal solid tumors have a higher rate of cure when identified at an earlier stage, screening for these tumors in patients with BWS is appropriate. Screening recommendations typically include serum a-fetoprotein measurements every 3 months until age 4 years to screen for hepatoblastoma and complete abdominal ultrasonography every 3 months through age 7 to 8 years to screen for Wilms tumor |
A 14-month-old boy whose parents recently emigrated from India presents to your office for a health supervision visit. The boy is at the third percentile for weight and for height. He is pale and his liver is palpable 3 cm below the costal margin. His parents bring with them laboratory results from India that shows:
WBC 11,000/uL Hemoglobin 5.2g/dl MCV 59fl Hemoglobin A 0% Hemoglobin A2 21% Hemoglobin F 79% What is the most likely complication in the course of his treatment?
What is iron overload?
The 2 primary components of hemoglobin that can be deficient are iron or the globin protein. Hemoglobin A, the normal adult variant, consists of 2 β-globin chains and 2 α-globin chains, with the β-globin gene located on chromosome 11 and the α-globin gene on chromosome 16. Mutations resulting in reduced production of either α-globin or β-globin result in various thalassemia phenotypes and present with a microcytic anemia. The child in the vignette has a severe microcytic anemia and his hemoglobin electrophoresis pattern shows the absence of hemoglobin A (α2 β2), with only hemoglobin A2 (α2 δ2) and F (α2 γ2) present. This means that he has 2 dysfunctional β-globin genes, and therefore has β-thalassemia major. The most appropriate management of thalassemia major is chronic blood transfusions, typically every 3 to 4 weeks, to maintain a hemoglobin greater than 10 g/dL (100 g/L). With each transfusion of packed red blood cells (PRBC) comes a large iron load (each mL of PRBC delivers 0.75 mg of iron). The human body has no mechanism for eliminating excess iron, so iron accumulates with each transfusion. Patients with thalassemia who are treated with frequent transfusions are therefore at high risk for complications associated with iron overload. The complications associated with chronic iron overload include endocrinopathies such as hypothyroidism, diabetes, hypogonadism, cardiomyopathy, and liver failure. Iron overload can be managed or even prevented through the use of aggressive chelation therapy. The most commonly used chelator is deferasirox, an oral, once a day medication. Some patients are unable to be adequately chelated with deferasirox and require the subcutaneous or intravenous administration of deferoxamine to maintain iron balance. The gold standard for assessing iron overload is liver biopsy, although newer techniques using specially calibrated magnetic resonance imaging are increasingly used. |
A 3-year-old man presents to his primary care physician's office for episodes of epistaxis and gingival bleeding. Mother reports his symptoms began one day prior to presentation and has never occurred before but child is just recovering from a mild running nose.she denies starting any new medications. Social history unremarkable. On physical exam, there is blood in the nares and mild bleeding of the gums. There are petechiae distal to where the blood pressure cuff was placed. Abdominal exam is unremarkable. A complete blood count is significant for a platelet count of 28,000/μL and peripheral blood smear demonstrates enlarged platelets.
What is immune thrombocytopenic purpura?
Conservative observation indication in patients with a platelet count > 30,000/μL and no bleeding Medical corticosteroids indication initial treatment for patients with a platelet count < 30,000/μL intravenous immunoglobulins (IVIG) indication for patients with a platelet count < 30,000/μL who have contraindications to corticosteroids, are refractory to corticosteroid treatment, or are bleeding or have a high risk of bleeding that will need a rapid increase in platelet count Operative splenectomy indication second-line treatment for patients with refractory ITP |
Antineoplastic therapy likely to cause cardiotoxicity
What are anthracyclines?
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You are caring for a 4-year-old girl hospitalized for newly diagnosed acute lymphoblastic leukemia. The child has a hemoglobin level of 6 g/dL (60 g/L) and has been tachycardic and fatigued. You order a transfusion of packed red blood cells. One hour into the transfusion, she develops a temperature to 38.5°C.
Of the following, the procedure that is MOST likely to have prevented this reaction is
What is leucoreduced blood product?
The infusion of even small numbers of granulocytes can lead to the release of pro-inflammatory cytokines, thereby increasing the risk of a febrile transfusion reaction. In order to reduce this risk, granulocytes are removed from blood products at the time of initial processing or immediately prior to transfusion via filtration, a process called leukodepletion. For the girl in the vignette, leukodepletion of the red blood cells (RBC) prior to transfusion would have had the greatest likelihood of reducing her risk of fever. Although granulocytes are removed through filtration, many lymphocytes are the size of RBC and are therefore not as effectively removed by filtration. While RBCs are typed by ABO typing, they are not human leukocyte antigen typed or matched to the recipient, and lymphocytes infused with a transfused product may recognize the recipient as foreign. In immune compromised hosts, the host immune system is unable to clear the infused donor lymphocytes, which may then undergo expansion in response to recognition of a foreign antigen and cause a severe, typically fatal, graft-versus-host reaction. In immune competent hosts, this does not occur, as the host immune system recognizes the donor lymphocytes as foreign and successfully eliminates them. Irradiation of blood products prior to transfusion renders donor lymphocytes replication incompetent, eliminating the threat of transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease. |
A 2-year-old girl with hemoglobin SS presents to the emergency department with a temperature of 37.4°C and fussiness. On physical examination, her heart rate is 162 beats/min, her blood pressure is 78/52 mm Hg, and her oxygen saturation in room air is 96%. She appears pale and her spleen tip is palpable 3 cm below the left costal margin. Her examination is otherwise normal. A complete blood cell count is shown:
Laboratory Test Patient Results White blood cell 13,000/μL (13 × 109/L) Hemoglobin 5.1 g/dL (51 g/L) Mean corpuscular volume 88 fL Platelets 95 × 103/μL (95 × 109/L) Reticulocyte count 35% The BEST next step in management is to
The girl in the vignette has splenic sequestration. It is critical to rapidly recognize this event, as it can quickly result in very severe anemia and death. This sickle cell–related crisis occurs when sickling in the vasculature of the spleen entraps red blood cells, resulting in rapid splenic engorgement and a severe, potentially life-threatening anemia. Splenic sequestration is most common in children younger than 5 years, but can occur at any age. It typically presents, as in the child in the vignette, with signs of severe anemia (tachycardia, pallor, and fussiness), thrombocytopenia, and a palpable spleen. Fever may be present. One of the most effective interventions for reducing mortality in young children with sickle cell disease has been teaching parents to palpate for a spleen in their child daily. Splenic sequestration associated with sickle cell disease should be treated with a transfusion of packed red blood cells. If the anemia is very severe, the transfusion should be given slowly, over several hours, and typically in aliquots of 5 to 7 mL/kg. This approach avoids further cardiac stress. In addition, the spleen will eventually “release” the entrapped red blood cells, leading to a rapid rise in hemoglobin; if too much blood was transfused when this occurs, the child can experience a hyperviscous state.
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A 6-year-old girl is admitted to the floor with a 5 day history of abdominal pain and a day of bloody diarrhea. Other members of the daycare she attends also had bloody diarrhea. She is irritable and lethargic. Her skin has also turned slightly yellow. Her arms have multiple petechiae. Lab results show creatinine of 4.0 mg/dL,BUN of 60mg/dl, platelet of 30,000/mm3, and hemoglobin of 5.6 g/dL. A peripheral blood smear shows schistocytes.
What is hemolytic uremic syndrome?
The hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) is defined by the simultaneous occurrence of microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, and acute kidney injury. It is one of the main causes of acute kidney injury in children. Although all pediatric cases exhibit the classic triad of findings that define HUS. Important etiological factors include Shiga toxin-producing Escherichia coli (STEC) infections which is responsible for 90% of pediatric cases. S.pneum and S. dysenteriae also implicated along with other non-infectious causes |
Tumor most likely to regress
What is neuroblastoma?
The term neuroblastoma is commonly used to refer to a spectrum of neuroblastic tumors (including neuroblastomas, ganglioneuroblastomas, and ganglioneuromas) that arise from primitive sympathetic ganglion cells and, like paragangliomas and pheochromocytomas, have the capacity to synthesize and secrete catecholamines. |
You are seeing an 18-month-old boy who has had 2 skin abscesses in the perianal region and 1 abscess in the scalp, recurrent oral ulcers, 5 episodes of otitis media, and 2 episodes of pneumonia in the previous year. Laboratory evaluation results are shown:
Test Results White blood cell count 11,000/µL (11.0 x 109/L) % neutrophils 72 % lymphocytes 23 % monocytes 3 % eosinophils 1 % basophils 1 Platelet count 245 x 103/µL (245 x 109/L) Hemoglobin 12.0 g/dL What is the most likely diagnosis?
What is CGD?
While frequent bacterial infections as described in the vignette could represent a clinical manifestation of severe neutropenia, such as that seen in severe congenital or cyclic neutropenia, the complete blood cell count reported has a normal number of neutrophils. Thus, consideration must be given to neutrophil dysfunction. The most common disorder of neutrophil function is chronic granulomatous disease (CGD), a defect caused by a failure to produce oxygen radicals to kill phagocytosed microorganisms. The gold standard for diagnosing and initial management of CGD is testing the phagocyte oxidative burst by flow cytometry and initiating prophylaxis with trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole. Chronic granulomatous disease is a genetic disorder that can be transmitted by X-linked or autosomal recessive inheritance. The X-linked form is by far the most common and is caused by a mutation in the CYBB gene that results in a dysfunctional gp91 protein. The most common autosomal form of CGD is caused by a mutation in the NCF1 gene on chromosome 7, resulting in a dysfunctional p47 protein. Chronic granulomatous disease most often presents with recurrent abscesses, most frequently caused by Staphylococcus aureus. It can also present with invasive fungal infections, usually with Aspergillus species. |
A previously well 16-year-old adolescent girl who is a varsity athlete presents to the emergency department with new-onset exercise intolerance. Four days earlier, she competed successfully at a high school track meet. Over the next few days, her stamina during practice decreased and on the day of presentation, she became winded while climbing a flight of stairs. She has no other symptoms. Her last menstrual cycle ended 2 weeks ago and was normal in duration and intensity. She denies having seen any blood in her urine or stool. On physical examination, she is afebrile, with a heart rate of 123 beats/min and a blood pressure of 110/76 mm Hg. She appears pale and fatigued, has slightly icteric sclera, and a grade 2/6 systolic murmur. Her examination is otherwise unremarkable.
Laboratory results are shown: Laboratory Test Patient Result White blood cell count 11,000/μL (11 × 109/L) Hemoglobin 3.9 g/dL (39 g/L) Mean corpuscular volume 95 fL Platelet count 455 × 103/μL (455 × 109/L) Reticulocyte count 35% DAT Positive
What is autoimmune hemolytic anemia?
Autoimmune hemolytic anemia (AIHA) is a true hematologic emergency. Rapid diagnosis and initiation of therapy can be life-saving. The adolescent girl in the vignette presents with signs and symptoms that strongly suggest AIHA. In particular, her tachycardia, fatigue, and exercise intolerance are likely due to hypoxemia of an acute onset. The laboratory results show a severe, normocytic anemia with a marked reticulocytosis, suggesting a destructive process rather than a red blood cell (RBC) production failure. The reticulocyte count increases as the renal oxygen tension sensors detect a drop in oxygen-carrying capacity caused by the anemia. In response, they upregulate hypoxia-inducible factors, which in turn upregulate the production of erythropoietin, driving erythropoiesis. The most appropriate next steps in her care would be to order a direct antibody test (DAT) and begin emergent management. The DAT will be positive if there are circulating antibody-coated RBCs. It is important to note that in instances of brisk hemolysis from AIHA, the antibody-coated cells may be destroyed so quickly that the DAT is paradoxically negative. Management of severe, life-threatening AIHA requires the emergent transfusion of a “least-incompatible” unit of packed RBCs, rapid initiation of immune suppression with corticosteroids, and ultimately identification of the autoantibody. The blood bank will perform compatibility testing on a number of units of packed RBC to determine which is least likely to be hemolyzed by the offending antibody |
Your are seeing a 2 year old recent migrant from Slovakia for a bad flare of his eczema for the first time today, PMH reveals several admissions in the past for pneumonia and "bad ear infections. Examination today confirms eczema along with yellowish -green healing bruises on the shin. CBC done today was significant for thrombocytopenia with decreased MPV.
What is the most like diagnosis?
Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome: TIE
Thrombocytopenia Immunodeficency Eczema |
Short stature, steatorrhea, fat malabsorption and pancytopenia with recurrent upper respiratory tract and skin infection, clinidactyly and syndactyly
What is Shwachman-Diamond syndrome?
Shwachman-Diamond syndrome (SDS) is an autosomal recessive syndrome that generally presents in infancy with bone marrow failure, particularly neutropenia, and exocrine pancreatic dysfunction. Approximately 90 percent of patients have homozygous or compound heterozygous mutation of the Shwachman-Bodian-Diamond syndrome (SBDS) gene. Additional manifestations include frequent infections, hepatic or cardiac abnormalities, neurocognitive deficits, other congenital anomalies, and an increased risk of developing myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) or acute myeloid leukemia (AML) |
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