Acronyms We need a nurse Take it to the lab Call a doctor Diagnostic team
100
Minimal Inhibitory Concentration:
The lowest concentration of antibiotic that inhibits the growth of a test organism.
What does "MIC" stands for?
100
ANSWER: A
When a patient has symptoms of a myocardial infarction, the nurse should take steps to increase myocardial oxygen supply. This can be done by administering oxygen via nasal cannula and by giving nitroglycerine to vasodilate the coronary arteries, thus increasing perfusion and improving myocardial delivery of oxygen.

Telemetry is the monitoring of electrocardiogram (EKG) and should be evaluated for possible signs of a myocardial infarction, such as ST segment elevation.

Vital signs should be assessed, especially before administering nitroglycerin.

Notifying the physician or cardiac cauterization team before completely assessing the patient is premature.

Norepinephrine (Levophed) is a catecholamine and would increase oxygen demand while decreasing supply.
The nurse assesses a patient complaining of chest pain that radiates down the left arm. The patient is diaphoretic and short of breath. What should the nurse do next?
a. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula, initiate telemetry and check vital signs, and administer nitroglycerin.
b. Administer oxygen via non-rebreather, initiate telemetry and check vital signs, and administer norepinephrine.
c. Check vital signs, administer oxygen and notify the cardiac catheterization team.
d. Start an IV, administer morphine, and notify the physician.
100
ANSWER: C
Onchocerca volvulus is the only microfilaria that is detected in the skin snips of patients with raised skin nodules. The microfilaria of Wuchereria, Brugia , and Loa loa are found in the blood of infected patients.
A fibrous skin nodule is removed from the back of a patient from Central America. A microfilaria seen upon microscopic exam of the nodule is:
a. Wuchereria bancrofti
b. Brugia malayi
c. Onchocerca volvulus
d. Loa loa
100
ANSWER: D
In this scenario, the product of the reactions, C, serves to perform positive feedback by increasing the enzymatic activity on enzyme X. Thus (D) is the correct answer.
A reaction takes place as follows: A --> B --> C, where enzyme X acts for A --> B and enzyme Y acts for B --> C. It is discovered that C acts in addition with enzyme X to increase the reaction rate. This can be referred to as:
a. Allosteric inhibition.
b. Negative feedback.
c. Noncompetitive inhibition.
d. Positive feedback.
50
ANSWER: A
Laboratory findings in iron deficiency anemia include decreased serum iron, serum ferritin, % transferrin saturation and increased TIBC

A 56-year-old man was admitted to the hospital for treatment of a bleeding ulcer. The following laboratory data were obtained:
*RBC: 4.2x106/µL *WBC: 5.0x103/µL
*Hct: 30% *Hgb: 8.5 g/Dl
*Serum iron: 40µg/Dl *Serum ferritin: 12ng/Ml
*TIBC (Total iron binding capacity): 460 µg/Dl
*RBC appearance: Smaller and paler in color than usual
200
hypertension
What does "HTN" stands for?
200
ANSWER: B
In osteoporosis, bones lose phosphate and calcium. This cause porous, brittle bones and increases the risk of fractures.

Magnesium and potassium are not associated with osteoporosis.
The nurse is reviewing the lab results of a patient with osteoporosis. The nurse would most likely note abnormalities in:
a. Calcium and magnesium.
b. Calcium and phosphorus.
c. Calcium and potassium.
d. Magnesium and phosphorus
200
ANSWER: D
Multipotent stem cells are capable of producing:
a. Daughter cells of only one cell line
b. Only T-lymphocytes and B-lymphocytes
c. Erythropoietin, thrombopoietin, and leukopoietin
d. Lymphoid and myeloid stem cells
200
ANSWER: B
Four viable sperm cells are produced from one primary sex cell, whereby only one viable egg cell is produced, due to the unequal division of cytoplasm and the formation of polar bodies, which wither and die.
In humans, what is the ratio of the number of gametes produced from one male primary sex cell to the number of gametes produced from one female primary sex cell?
a. 1:3
b. 4:1
c. 3:1
d. 1:4
100
1. ANSWER: C
The healthcare provider will be concerned about fluid volume overload in this patient, so cardiopulmonary status is the priority assessment. The other assessments will also be part of the patient’s ongoing care.
When administering intravenous (IV) fluids to a 1-year-old child experiencing severe diarrhea, which of these assessments is the priority for the healthcare provider to monitor?
a. Status of the IV site
b. Skin Integrity
c. Cardiopulmonary status
d. Urine output
300
glucose tolerance test
What does "GTT" stands for?
300
ANSWER: A
The pH is below normal (7.35-7.45) and bicarbonate is decreased (21-28). This is acidosis from a metabolic source.

Metabolic acidosis is the result of the loss of too much base or the retention of too much acid, in this case, ketones.

CO2 is decreased due to compensation of the lungs.
A patient who is diagnosed with diabetes mellitus was ordered to have an arterial blood gas (ABG). The attending physician suspects that the patient is experiencing metabolic acidosis. Which set of arterial blood gasses should the nurse expect to find if the patient is having metabolic acidosis?
a. pH: 7.29, pCO2: 22, HCO3: 14
b. pH: 7.31, pCO2: 67, HCO3: 32
c. pH: 7.39, pCO2: 43, HCO3: 22
d. pH: 7.45, pCO2: 38, HCO3: 23
300
ANSWER: C
The diagnostic stages of Strongyloids, Entamoeba and Ancylostoma can be detected in the stool of infected patients. The diagnostic stage of Echinoccocus granulosus is not detected in an infected patient’s stool.
The examination of human feces is no help in the detection of:
a. Strongyloides stercoralis
b. Entamoeba histolytica
c. Echinoccocus granulosus
d. Ancylostoma duodenale
300
ANSWER: C
Fetal hemoglobin has a higher affinity for oxygen (because it needs to compete for the mother's hemoglobin). Thus, at any given oxygen pressure, fetal hemoglobin will have a higher percent oxygen saturation. This can be seen in the figure below and is indicative of a left-shifted oxygen saturation curve.
Fetal hemoglobin differs from maternal hemoglobin in that it
a. Has a right-shifted oxygen saturation curve
b. Has increased affinity for iron
c. Has a left-shifted oxygen saturation curve
d. Has an increased half-life
150
ANSWER: B
The flagellate Trichomonas vaginalis moves rapidly through the sediment. If not moving, it may resemble WBC, and careful examination of phase microscopy is needed to visualize the flagellum. Urine is toxic to spermatozoa.
Which of the following exhibits rapid motility in urine sediments?
a. Spermatozoa
b. Trichomonas vaginalis
c. Gardnerella vaginalis
d. Enterobius vermicularis
400
colony-forming units
What does "CFU" stands for?
400
ANSWER: B, E
Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant. Common side effects include lethargy, fatigue, orthostatic hypotension, and anticholinergic effects such as dry mouth and eyes, constipation, blurry vision, and urinary retention.

Tricyclic antidepressants are no longer common due to their large side effect profile and the risk of overdose.
A patient is prescribed amitriptyline for the treatment of depression. The nurse educates the patient about which common side effects? (Select all that apply.)
a. Diarrhea
b. Dry mouth and eyes
c. Excessive tears
d. Hypertension
e. Lethargy
400
ANSWER: D
Chocolate agar and chocolate agar based selective media should be used for recovery of Neisseria gonorrhoeae from urethral discharge. Chocolate agar provides the nutrients required by N. gonorrhoeae and selective media contains antimicrobial agents that inhibits other organisms and permits recovery of pathogenic Neisseria.
Proper media for culture of urethral discharge from a man include :
a. Sheep blood and phenylethyl alcohol agars
b. Eosin-methylene blue and sheep blood agars
c. Thioglycollate broth and chocolate agar
d. Chocolate and modified Thayer-Martin agars
400
ANSWER: B
(A) is incorrect because this is an example best described by functionalism. (C) is eliminated because this is an example best described by Conflict Theory. (D) is eliminated because this is an example best described by ethnocentrisim. (B) is an example best described by symbolic interactionism because the example shows how the symbolic meaning of smoking is valued above any facts about long-term negative health effects.
Which of the following is an example best described by symbolic interactionism?
a. A dentist works part-time in a small practice serving economically-disadvantaged children; the dentist believes these practices are integral to the community as a whole.
b. Erin continues her habit of smoking cigarettes, reasoning that the benefits to her social life outweigh her chances of any long-term health effects.
c. After learning the minimum wage in his state was lowered, Paul, a vice president at a car rental corporation, lowers the starting salary for his entry-level employees to barely above the minimum wage. Paul hopes to impress his superiors with an additional source of profit margin.
d. Kieran, the son of immigrants, is discouraged by his parents from talking to others outside of his culture.
200
ANSWER: A

A sputum culture from a patient grows catalase-negative, gram-positive cocci. The bacterial cultures are small and alpha-hemolytic on a BA plate. Biochemical test results of a pure culture are:
*Optochin test: susceptible *NaCl: Negative
*Esculin: Negative
Assuming that all controls react properly and reactions are verified, the next step would be to:
a. Report the organism as Streptococcus pneumoniae
b. Report the organism as Staphylococcus aureus
c. Report the organism as Streptococcus agalactiae
d. Perform a Streptococcus group typing
500
chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
What does "COPD" stands for?
500
ANSWER: D
A patient on diuretics for congestive heart failure with increased urine output may have decreased serum potassium levels. This occurs when the kidneys produce large amounts of urine output where potassium is excreted.

A potassium level of less than 3.5 mEq/L will require supplemental potassium replacement to prevent cardiac arrhythmias.
A nurse is caring for a 76-year-old patient with an n exacerbation of congestive heart failure. The patient has been receiving furosemide 80 mg IV every 12 hours and has had a total urine output of 3.8 liters in the last 24 hours. The patient’s recent laboratory work reveals a serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L. The nurse reports this lab result to the doctor and anticipates which of the following orders?
a. Change patient’s diet order to “potassium-sparing renal diet.”
b. Give regular insulin five units IV with 20 mL of dextrose 50% solution now
c. Initiate normal saline IV infusion at a rat of 125 mL/hour for 8 hours
d. Replace potassium with 60 mEq oral Potassium solution by mouth now
500
ANSWER: C
Direct culture of Treponema pallidum has not been achieved. Darkfield microscopy and serological techniques are used to diagnose T. pallidum infection.
Which of the organism fails to grow on artificial media or in cell cultures?
a. Chlamydia trachimatis
b. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
c. Treponema pallidum
d. Herpes simplex virus
500
ANSWER: C
Since a homozygous recessive is being crossed with a heterozygous plant, half of the offspring will be homozygous recessive while half of the offspring will be heterozygous. Thus, if there are 653 yellow plants, there ought to be approximately 653 red plants as well.
A researcher crosses a heterozygous yellow (dominant) plant with a homozygous recessive red plant. In the next generation, 653 plants were yellow. Which of the following answers is an approximate prediction for the number of red plants in the same generation as the 653 yellow plants?
a. 0
b. 238
c. 653
d. 978
250
ANSWER: C
You are exanimating a patients’ stool sample. He is complaining of mild GI discomfort. On the specimen, you visualize:
 Gravid proglottids with 10 uterine branches
 Scolex armed with rostellum
These results are consistent with which of the following Helminths?
a. Taenia saginata
b. Ascaris lumbricoides
c. Taenia solium
d. Trichuris trichiura






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