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Lifespan Development Physiological/Pharmacology Psychological Assessment Social Psychology
100
Question ID #1265:
Sexual activity in older adulthood is most likely to be affected by:

Select one:

A.
Past sexual history.

B.
Diminished sexual desire.

C.
Increased sexual desire.

D.
Decreased physical ability.
The correct answer is A.

Sex drive does not diminish with age, making answer B false, and the likelihood of sexual activity in the later years is closely related to the frequency of sexual activity during younger years. With sexuality in later life, past behavior is a good predictor of future behavior. Although research has indicated that people who were sexually active are likely to remain sexually active during old age, it does not show that people have an increased sexual desire, which makes answer C incorrect. Men who have been sexually active can generally engage in some sort of sexual activity well into their 70s or even 80s, while women are physiologically able to be sexually active as long as they live. For women, the lack of an available partner is typically the main barrier to sexual activity, making answer D incorrect.
100
Question ID #1031:
Huntington's disease, Tourette's syndrome, OCD, and ADHD all result from damage to:

Select one:

A.
The thalamus.

B.
The basal ganglia.

C.
The putamen.

D.
The substantia nigra.
The correct answer is B.

The basal ganglia consist of several distinct and interconnected nuclei. These nuclei are involved in coordinated motor movements, involuntary movements, and automated thoughts and emotions. Disruption to the basal ganglia has been implicated in Huntington's disease, Tourette's syndrome, OCD, and ADHD. Specifically, Huntington's disease and OCD are associated with degeneration of neurons in the caudate nucleus. Tourette's syndrome is associated with dysfunction of the putamen, while ADHD is associated with decreased volume in the basal ganglia. Answer A is incorrect, as damage to the thalamus is not associated with the above disorders. The thalamus has two primary functions; the first is to relay incoming messages from the cortex to subcortical areas and vice versa, and the second is to regulate sleep and wakefulness. Answer C is incomplete, as the putamen is part of the basal ganglia but damage to the putamen is associated with Tourette's syndrome only. Answer D is incorrect, as malfunctions in the substantia nigra, a structure often associated with the basal ganglia, are implicated in Parkinson's disease.
100
Question ID #1005:
The Leiter International Performance Scale is similar to the Hiskey-Nebraska test in that it:

Select one:

A.
Is a single-task test that uses mazes.

B.
Is also used with children with expressive or receptive language disorders.

C.
Is used only with adults.

D.
Was designed to be used with blind children.
The correct answer is B.

As the Leiter is used with other language disorders as well as hearing impairments. A, C, and D are not characteristics where the Leiter International Performance Scale and Hiskey-Nebraska test are similar, which makes these answers incorrect.
100
Question ID #2089: Which of the following statements about attitude change is false?
Select one:

A.
A communicator's trustworthiness can be increased if he or she argues a position apparently opposed to his or her own self-interest.

B.
A communicator's trustworthiness is increased if he or she does not seem to be trying to influence opinion.

C.
A communicator's trustworthiness is increased if the message was an "accidental message" (e.g., overheard in a conversation).

D.
A communicator's trustworthiness is increased if the message presented elicits an extreme fear response.
The correct answer is D.

Extreme messages and those that induce too much fear can often backfire and they are often perceived as unbelievable. A communicator’s trustworthiness can be increased if he or she argues a position opposed to his or her own self-interest (answer A). This is proven in research dealing with persuasion. If a communicator can attempt to not seem like he or she is trying to persuade (answer B), and if a communicator is able to make a message feel “accidental,” then that communicator has a much greater chance of appearing trustworthy (answer C).
100
Question ID #1073: Which of the following statements about autocorrelation is incorrect?

Select one:

a.
It detects non-randomness in the data.

b.
It identifies an appropriate time-series model if the data are not random.

c.
It allows for the prediction of future (similar) values in a series.

d.
It causes researchers to ignore coefficient estimates.
Your answer is incorrect.
The correct answer is D.

Repeated measurements may be analyzed to detect non-randomness (e.g., first and fifth values similar, as are the second and sixth, third and seventh, and so forth), which makes answer A incorrect. If an autocorrelation exists, one may determine an appropriate time-series model allowing for better prediction of future values in a series. However, an autocorrelation does not necessarily invalidate coefficient estimates but rather poses concerns regarding tests of their statistical significance (e.g., t-tests).

Answers B and C are therefore incorrect.
200
Question ID #1317:
By the age of __________, children demonstrate an understanding of the finality and universality of death.

Select one:

A.
three

B.
five

C.
seven

D.
nine
The correct answer is D.

Children first develop an understanding of death around the age of five. Answer A is incorrect because prior to the age of five, children tend to believe that death is temporary, like a deep sleep that people can choose to wake from. Answers B and C are incorrect because it is not until the age of nine that children gain an understanding about the finality and universality of death.
200
Question ID #1040:
Which of the following is NOT a benzodiazepine?

Select one:

A.
Alprazolam (Xanax)

B.
Clonazepam (Klonopin)

C.
Adderall (Obetrol)

D.
Temazepam (Restoril)
The correct answer is C.

As Adderall is not a benzodiazepine. Answers A, B, and D are incorrect, as these are all benzodiazepines.
200
Question ID #1134:
The test that most reflects Luria's model of intelligence is:

Select one:

A.
The WAIS.

B.
The MMPI-2.

C.
The K-ABC.

D.
The NEO-PI-R.
The correct answer is C.

The Kaufman Assessment Battery for Children. Answer A is a distractor term, answer B is a widely used personality assessment instrument, and answer D is a lesser-known personality assessment tool.
200
Question ID #2102:
Johnny was hurriedly walking across the quadrangle to get to class when he tripped on a rock near his classroom. He blamed the rock and the fact that he was hurrying to get to the classroom for the incident. However, a few days later he saw his classmate Francis trip on the same rock. He thought to himself that Francis was a really clumsy person. Johnny just committed:

Select one:

A.
The fundamental attribution error.

B.
Self-serving bias.

C.
The cognitive dissonance error.

D.
Actor-observer bias.
The correct answer is A.

By using a situational factor to describe his own mistake and a dispositional factor to describe Francis’s mistake, Johnny committed the fundamental attribution error. Self-serving bias is the tendency to perceive oneself favorably. One credits internal factors for successes and external factors for failures, which makes answer B incorrect. Cognitive dissonance is psychological distress caused by conscious awareness of two contradictory thoughts, ideas, feelings, or cognitions, which makes answer C incorrect. Actor-observer bias requires analyzing and justifying our own behaviors, which makes answer D incorrect.
200
Question ID #1347:
Which statement about variables is correct?

Select one:

A.
Nominal variables are quantitative and measured only in terms of whether the individual items belong to some distinctively different categories.

B.
In observational studies, only the criterion variable is measured.

C.
Interval variables have an absolute zero, unlike ratio variables.

D.
A constant is known as an unchanging value.
The correct answer is D.

Nominal variables are qualitative, not quantitative, and measured only in terms of whether the individual items belong to some distinctively different categories, which makes answer A false. In observational, or correlational, studies, both variables are measured, not just the criterion variable, which makes answer B false. Ratio variables, not interval variables, have an absolute zero, which makes answer C false.
300
Question ID #1497:
A high school English teacher expects all of his students in the class to receive a B or higher. At the end of the year, all of the students received a B or higher in the class. This is an example of:

Select one:

A.
internal locus of control.

B.
attribution theory.

C.
achievement motivation.

D.
the Rosenthal effect.
The correct answer is D.

The Rosenthal effect occurs when the expectation of the teacher has a positive effect on the student's progress. Answer A is incorrect because locus of control is the belief that anything that happens in an individual's life, positive or negative, is a result of controllable factors. Answer B is incorrect because this is the study of how people attribute causes to events in their life. Answer C is incorrect, as achievement motivation has to do with what factors influence a student to succeed in school.
300
Question ID #1425:
Ben is a 10-year-old boy who has extreme difficulty differentiating his right from his left and learning how to add and subtract. In addition, his writing is very laborious. He has difficulty forming his letters and writes extremely slowly. During a neurological exam, it was found that he has difficulty identifying his fingers and orienting his fingers as requested by the neurologist. Ben most likely has:

Select one:

A.
Developmental Gerstmann's syndrome.

B.
A nonverbal learning disability.

C.
Neurofibromatosis.

D.
Klüver-Bucy syndrome.
The correct answer is A.

Developmental Gerstmann's syndrome is a developmental version of Gerstmann's syndrome that is associated with bilateral damage to the angular gyrus. Like acquired Gerstmann's syndrome in adults, developmental Gerstmann's syndrome is associated with finger agnosia, acalculia, dysgraphia, and right-left confusion.
300
Question ID #1299: If the client's score on the MMPI-2's L scale is above T-65, the client likely:
Select one:

A.
Marked most answers as true.

B.
Has a lack of insight into his or her problems.

C.
Was malingering.

D.
Was under severe distress during the test.
The correct answer is B.

Elevated L scale responses may indicate a desire to "fake good" or that the test-taker has poor insight. Malingering (answer C) is identified by looking at the pattern of scores on all of the validity scales. A high Trin score would be the result of marking most answers true (answer A), and if they were under severe distress during the test (answer D) it may be indicated by elevation on the F scale.
300
Question ID #2153:
During a job interview, the better dressed candidate was perceived as more competent than the plain-looking candidate. This demonstrates:

Select one:

A.
The halo effect.

B.
The Barnum effect.

C.
The theory of androgyny.

D.
Self-fulfilling prophecy.
The correct answer is A.

The fact that the better dressed candidate dresses better than the plain-looking candidate is a positive trait. That positive trait's being correlated with the competence of the candidate demonstrates the halo effect. The Barnum effect is the likelihood that individuals will deem accounts of their personality as highly accurate when descriptions are generalizable to anyone (fortunes, horoscopes, etc.), which makes answer B incorrect. The theory of androgyny is that a mixture of male and female characteristics is perceived as more adaptive, which makes answer C incorrect. Self-fulfilling prophecy is the tendency for people to act in a way that is predicted about an event or behavior, thereby increasing the likelihood that the event or behavior will occur, which makes answer D incorrect.
300
Question ID #1376:
Which of the following statements regarding the matched-subjects design is correct?

Select one:

A.
A matched-subjects design compares an experimental group to a similar control group.

B.
A matched-subjects design compares two sets of data obtained from the same sample.

C.
Matched-subjects designs are mixed designs.

D.
Matched-subjects designs are within-subjects designs.
The correct answer is A.

The matched-subjects design involves matching participants on a variable related to the dependent variable (e.g., socioeconomic status), and then assigning one member of each pair to each experimental condition, whereas a within-subjects design assigns participants to each experimental condition (i.e., everyone serves as her or his own control).
400
Question ID #2344:
According to Masters and Johnson, the most common reason for lack of sexual activity in older women is:

Select one:

A.
Lack of interest.

B.
Health problems.

C.
Lack of a partner.

D.
Decreased lubrication.
The correct answer is C.

Women retain the physiological capacity for sexual activity longer than men, yet they are less sexually active than men in old age. One of the main obstacles that Masters and Johnson attribute to the lack of women's sexual activity is the lack of a partner.
400
Question ID #1430:
Bob is a 60-year-old man who suffered a stroke. Through the use of brain imaging, the location of the stroke was determined to be in the right parietal lobe. After the stroke occurred, Bob displayed unusual behavior, which included eating only foods on the right side of his plate and shaving only half of his face. Bob's behavior is consistent with:

Select one:

A.
Synesthesia.

B.
Anosognosia.

C.
Paresthesia.

D.
Contralateral neglect.
The correct answer is D.

Contralateral neglect is the condition that occurs when one "neglects" half of their body or physical space. This most commonly occurs after a stroke or injury to the right parietal lobe. Because the right parietal lobe processes information from the left visual field, the left side of the body or space may be neglected, while the individual maintains awareness of the right side. Synesthesia (answer A) is the stimulation of one sensory domain (vision) from a different sensory domain (auditory). Anosognosia (answer B) is the unawareness of one's own neurological symptoms. Paresthesia (answer C) is numbness or tingling that may be perceived from altered sensation in the skin.
400
Question ID #1674:
It is often difficult for an adult to correctly name the color of the ink used in a printed word if the ink color is different from the color the word indicates (for example, if the word "red" is written in blue color). Which effect explains this phenomenon?

Select one:

A.
The Ponzo effect

B.
The Stroop effect

C.
The Zeigarnik effect

D.
The Pulfrich effect
The correct answer is B.

The Stroop effect is delay and interruption in naming the color of a word printed in a non-matching color ink. This effect indicates that word recognition occurs faster than color recognition. Answer A is incorrect, as it involves the way the eyes judge distance and size. Answer C is incorrect, as it describes the tendency for people to remember unfinished tasks better than finished ones. Answer D is incorrect as well, as it relates to the way we perceive moving objects.
400
Question ID #2401:
After watching the presidential debates on TV, a man decides that he will vote a particular candidate because "he seems like he knows what he is talking about and he is cool under pressure." According to the elaboration likelihood model, this man's decision is based on:

Select one:

A.
The central processing route.

B.
The peripheral processing route.

C.
The overjustification hypothesis.

D.
The cognitive dissonance theory.
The correct answer is B.

Basing his opinions on a specific candidate on the presidential debates seen on TV, and on the fact that he seems to know what he is talking about, etc., is an example of a man using peripheral processing route. The central processing route would have been used if the man based his opinions on the presidential candidates views on specific issues, which makes answer A incorrect. Overjustification hypothesis and cognitive dissonance theory are not related to elaboration likelihood model, which makes answers C and D incorrect.
400
Question ID #1616:
If a set of scores has a mean of 100 and a standard deviation of 10, subtracting 10 points from each score will:

Select one:

A.
Decrease the mean by 10 and decrease the standard deviation by 10.

B.
Decrease the mean by 10 but will not affect the standard deviation.

C.
Increase the mean and standard deviation.

D.
Have no effect on the mean or standard deviation.
The correct answer is B.

Adding or subtracting a constant from each score alters the mean similarly but not the standard deviation (i.e., the mean is now 100 - 10 = 90, whereas the standard deviation remains 10); however, multiplying or dividing each score by a constant affects both the mean and the standard deviation similarly (e.g., dividing each score by 10 would result in a mean of 100 / 10 = 10 and a standard deviation of 10 / 10 = 1).
500
Question ID #2808:
Which neonatal reflex is characterized by the baby turning the head, opening the mouth, and beginning sucking movements, in response to his or her cheek being stroked with a finger or nipple?

Select one:

A.
Rooting reflex

B.
Moro reflex

C.
Babinski reflex

D.
Grasp reflex
The correct answer is A.

The rooting reflex is characterized by the baby turning the head, opening the mouth, and beginning sucking movements, in response to his or her cheek being stroked with a finger or nipple. The Moro reflex (answer B) involves the baby extending the legs, arms, and fingers, and arching the back, in response to being startled. The Babinski reflex (answer C) is characterized by the baby spreading out the toes and twisting the foot when the sole of his or her foot is stroked. In the grasp reflex (answer D), the baby makes a firm fist around an object that is placed in the hand.
500
Question ID #1437:
Early motor symptoms of Huntington's disease (HD) include:

Select one:

A.
Facial grimaces, piano-like finger movements, and involuntary muscle jerks.

B.
Muscle spasms and difficulty standing or moving.

C.
Muscle pain, joint discomfort, and swelling.

D.
Muscle rigidity, poor coordination, and tremors.
The correct answer is A.

Early motor symptoms of HD include facial grimacing, piano-like finger movements, and involuntary muscle jerks. The involuntary rapid jerking of the arms, legs, and other parts of the body that is associated with HD is called chorea. As the disease progresses, motor movements become less choreic and more rigid.
500
Question ID #1685:
The Strong Interest Inventory uses what approach to assess people's interests?

Select one:

A.
Domain-referenced

B.
Criterion-group

C.
Ipsative

D.
Normative
The correct answer is B.

The Strong Interest Inventory (SII) matches test-takers to a criterion group of people who report to be successful and satisfied in their careers. Answer C is incorrect, as this is a type of testing measure but is associated with comparing an individual's scores to each other. Answer D is incorrect; it is a method of creating and evaluating the results of a test, but the SII does not base its analysis on specific norms. Domain-referenced tests (incorrect answer A) measure performance against a well-defined set of tasks or body of knowledge.
500
Question ID #3150:
Which of the following groups is NOT associated with a time orientation that is focused on the present, an approach to life that is action-oriented, and a collective guiding principle?

Select one:

A.
Native Americans

B.
Caucasians

C.
African Americans

D.
Hispanic Americans
The correct answer is B.

Caucasians are not generally affiliated with the qualities noted. African Americans, Native Americans, and Hispanic Americans follow the various approaches mentioned in this example, making answers A, C, and D incorrect.
500
Question ID #2681:
Large sample sizes are closely related to all of the following EXCEPT:

Select one:

A.
Reducing sampling error.

B.
Obtaining greater power.

C.
Determining the critical alpha level.

D.
A greater likelihood of obtaining statistical significance.
The correct answer is C.

The level of alpha used in a statistical test is left to the researcher to determine.




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