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Abnormal Psychology Clinical Psychology Ethics and Professional Issues Industrial/Organizational Psychology Learning Theory/Cognitive Behavioral Theory
100
Question ID #102:
Which of the following is NOT a key feature of disinhibited social engagement disorder?

Select one:

A.
Overly familiar verbal and physical behavior

B.
Lack of reticence

C.
Difficulties with attention

D.
Attention-seeking behaviors
The correct answer is C.

Difficulty with attention is not a symptom of disinhibited social engagement disorder. Answers A, B, and D are key features of disinhibited social engagement disorder, which make them incorrect.
100
Question ID #1288: __________ people make __________, unstable, and specific attributions to negative events.
Select one:

A.
Pessimistic; external

B.
Optimistic; internal

C.
Optimistic; external

D.
Pessimistic; internal
The correct answer is C.

In the statement above you need to recognize two key elements of attributional style:"unstable" and "specific attributions." These are part of the three elements of optimistic (answers B and C) attribution style. If the answer above stated it was "stable" or "global" attributions you should have picked pessimistic (answers A and D). Secondly, in the optimistic attribution style the person makes external (answers A and C) attributions to negative events. A pessimistic attribution style makes internal (answers B and D) attributions. Thus, putting it together, only answer C fits both the requirements of optimistic and external.
100
Question ID #1024:
Which of the following institutions is most likely to review research protocols involving animals?

Select one:

A.
American Psychological Association (APA)

B.
Institutional Animal Care and Use Committee (IACUC)

C.
American Veterinary Medical Association (AVMA)

D.
American Psychological Society (APS)
The correct answer is B.

As IACUC has the responsibility of reviewing and approving protocols for animal research. The APA Ethics Code is relevant to animal research but does not review research protocols, making answer A incorrect. The AVMA is relevant for animal research (e.g., guidelines for animal euthanasia) but does not review research protocols; hence, answer C is incorrect. The APS does not review research protocols, invalidating answer D.
100
Question ID #2201:
The Ohio State Leadership Studies identified a number of behaviors associated with leadership. One class of behaviors, which they called __________, included such things as emphasizing group goals, making assignments, and setting and maintaining standards.

Select one:

A.
task-oriented

B.
autocratic

C.
consideration

D.
initiates structure
The correct answer is D.

The Ohio State group identified two classes of behaviors: "Initiates structure" (emphasizes group goals, assignments, deadlines, setting and maintaining standards) and "offers consideration" (provides support, shows respect, emphasizes trust, warmth, and support). "Task-oriented" (answer A) is an adequate description of this cluster, but the Ohio State group used a term that better captures their view that these were active behaviors, i.e., initiates structure. Often these behaviors are associated with an autocratic style (answer B), but behaviors associated with initiating structure (answer D) do not preclude power sharing.
100
Question ID #114:
Which of the following is NOT a component of behavioral contrast?

Select one:

A.
Punishment

B.
Fear conditioning

C.
Avoidant conditioning
Incorrect

D.
Extinction
The correct answer is B.

Fear conditioning is a classical conditioning phenomenon, whereas behavioral contrast occurs only with operant conditioning. Negative behavioral contrast can occur when either punishment or extinction follows a previously reinforced behavior, making answers A and D incorrect. Extinction is a behavioral term that exists in both classical and operant conditioning. Extinction occurs when a conditioned stimulus (CS) is no longer paired with an unconditioned stimulus (US). Avoidant conditioning is an operant conditioning phenomenon that can be used to demonstrate negative behavioral contrast; hence, answer C is incorrect.
200
Question ID #1140:
Which of the following symptoms is more indicative of what the DSM-5 refers to as Uncomplicated Bereavement than normal grieving?

Select one:

A.
A combination of marked sadness, weight loss, and decreased appetite

B.
Extreme feelings of hopelessness and isolation for more than one month

C.
Morbid preoccupation with worthlessness

D.
Insomnia
The correct answer is C.

Of the responses listed, preoccupation with personal worthlessness is more indicative of a pathological reaction to grief. Sadness, weight loss, and decreased appetite are normal grief reactions in response to significant loss. Extreme feelings of hopelessness and isolation (answer B) could be indicative of major depressive disorder, but would not be considered pathological if the response is within a short period of the loss. Insomnia could be normal or extreme, depending on the length of time exhibited, but as one symptom, extreme preoccupation with personal worthlessness is more indicative of a pathological grief reaction than insomnia.
200
Question ID #1388:
__________ is the modern-day version of what used to be termed "neurasthenia," or nervous breakdown.

Select one:

A.
Burnout

B.
Learned helplessness

C.
Social loafing

D.
Stress inoculation
The correct answer is A.

Burnout refers to physical, emotional, or mental exhaustion typically related to one's occupation. This term is commonly used today in place of prior terms such as nervous breakdown or neurasthenia. Learned helplessness (answer B) involves the repeated process of discovering that there is no escape from an aversive stimulus, and therefore, no escape attempt is made and depressive symptoms increase. Social loafing (answer C) involves the reduction in individual effort that occurs in people working in groups relative to when they work alone. Stress inoculation (answer D) is a four-phase training program for stress management often used in CBT and developed by Miechenbaum.
200
Question ID #1029:
Which of the following studies does NOT employ deception?

Select one:

A.
Participants interact with other "participants" who are actually confederates

B.
Participants receive false feedback regarding a personality test they have completed

C.
Participants are not informed that they are being randomly assigned to one of two conditions

D.
Participants are split into two groups, with only one group providing informed consent
The correct answer is D.

Answers A, B, and C are all examples of deception because an aspect of the study design is not disclosed or false feedback has been given to the participant. Answer D is not an example of a study using deception, as true informed consent is not obtained when deception is used.
200
Question ID #2350:
Adverse impact is to __________ as disparate treatment is to __________.

Select one:

A.
members of all groups undergo the same selection-placement-advancement procedures; members of one group undergo different selection-placement-advancement procedures than members of another group

B.
members of one group undergo different selection-placement-advancement procedures than members of another group; members of all groups undergo the same selection-placement-advancement procedures

C.
recruitment and hiring; advancement and promotion

D.
intentional discrimination; inadvertent discrimination
The correct answer is A.

Adverse impact occurs when members of one group are disadvantaged relative to another group based on the same selection-placement-advancement procedure. Disparate treatment refers to the disadvantage a group experiences because its members went through a different process than members of another group or groups. The disadvantage in either case could be intentional or it could be inadvertent, but intention is more often associated with disparate treatment. The procedures used, whether different or the same (and thus whether adverse impact or disparate treatment is the case), are used in recruitment and hiring as well as advancement and promotion.
200
Question ID #1271:
Overjustification is often referred to as paradoxical because it is an example of:

Select one:

A.
A reinforcer decreasing behavior rather than increasing it.

B.
A punishment increasing behavior rather than decreasing it.

C.
A memory aid that makes certain kinds of information more difficult to remember.

D.
A memory impairment accompanied by improved memory for certain types of information.
The correct answer is A.

Overjustification is a paradoxical phenomenon in operant conditioning in which reinforcement actually decreases the level of time and effort an individual chooses to dedicate to a particular behavior. This effect is counterintuitive in operant conditioning because reinforcement is intended to cause an increase in the performance of the behaviors that produce it. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not correspond to the definition of overjustification.
300
Question ID #1143:
Hypomania is characterized by an unequivocal change in an individual's functioning that is uncharacteristic of the person when hypomanic symptoms are not present. This change in functioning may involve:

Select one:

A.
Decreased productivity and efficiency.

B.
Increased need for sleep.

C.
Expansive and/or irritable mood.

D.
Increased ability for concentration.
The correct answer is C.

As a hypomanic episode involves increases in expansive, euphoric, or irritable mood. Answer A is incorrect, as the opposite is true; temporary increases in productive behavior may result. Answer B is incorrect, as there is typically a decreased need for sleep. Answer D is incorrect, as the opposite is true; distractibility, rather than increased concentration, is one of the symptoms of hypomania.
300
Question ID #1574:
The BHS is a 20-item inventory that rates the level of hopelessness an individual is experiencing. A person with high scores on the BHS is very likely to be experiencing:

Select one:

A.
Homicidal ideation.

B.
Repressed anger.

C.
Suicidal ideation.

D.
Over-controlled hostility.
The correct answer is C.

Beck developed the Beck Hopelessness Scale (BHS), which is a 20-point scale used to measure the severity of hopelessness. When combined with high scores on the BDI-II, it is strongly associated with suicidal ideation. To answer this question correctly, you should recognize that hopelessness is a cognitive theory and cognitive model of depression term that is not related to homicidal ideation (answer A), repressed anger (answer B), or over-controlled hostility (answer D). You may have been confused by those terms as they are categories commonly assessed in other inventories.
300
Question ID #1125:
Dr. Nyer is conducting a psychological evaluation with an adult male when he finds himself running late for his next appointment. Which of the following would be the best way for Dr. Nyer to proceed with the rest of the evaluation?

Select one:

A.
Schedule another appointment for the client to return and finish the testing

B.
As long as they are self-report measures, let the client take the materials home and mail them back to him

C.
Continue with the evaluation and reschedule the next client, as all the testing should ideally be completed on the same day

D.
Evaluate the client based on the questions he has answered, to give timely feedback
The correct answer is A.

Good professional practice includes being on time for appointments. Rather than continuing the evaluation and delaying the appointment with the next client, Dr. Nyer should simply schedule a follow-up testing session. Answer B is not advisable due to test security and correct and ethical test administration requirements. Answer C is untrue. Evaluating the client based on a partial test is not the best practice that Dr. Nyer should do with a person who is being evaluated, which makes answer D false.
300
Question ID #2399:
Transformational leaders and charismatic leaders are similar in which of the following ways?

Select one:

A.
Both use inspiring visions to motivate followers.

B.
Both emerge in times of crisis.

C.
Both empower and develop followers.

D.
Both foster an image of being extraordinary.
The correct answer is A.

Transformational leaders distinguish themselves by their ability to inspire followers to strive toward noble pursuits such as morality, justice, and peace. Transformational leaders utilize individualized attention to broaden and elevate the goals of their subordinates; they consider the needs and capabilities of each individual in order to increase performance goals. They also use intellectual stimulation, charisma, and inspiration. Under this kind of leadership, followers are moved to better themselves and behave in ways that contribute to the greater good or a common vision. Charismatic leaders also use vision as means to motivate followers (answer A). Charismatic leadership shares some of the properties of transformational leadership but differs in that charismatic leaders are overly credited with extraordinary abilities (answer D). Charismatic leaders tend to emerge in times of crisis (answer B); transformational leaders can emerge at any time. Charismatic leaders may do little to empower or engage their followers (answer C).
300
Question ID #1301:
In __________, a stimulus is applied to increase the likelihood of a response occurring.

Select one:

A.
negative punishment

B.
positive punishment

C.
positive reinforcement

D.
negative reinforcement
The correct answer is C.

Positive reinforcement involves providing a pleasant stimulus contingent upon the occurrence of a voluntary behavior for the purpose of increasing that behavior. Answers A and B are incorrect, as negative and positive punishment are procedures used to decrease behaviors, not increase them. Answer D is incorrect, as negative reinforcement involves removing or withholding an unpleasant or aversive stimulus contingent upon the performance of a behavior, with the aim of increasing that behavior.
400
Question ID #1148:
Children diagnosed with selective mutism are most likely to also display symptoms of:

Select one:

A.
childhood-onset fluency disorder.

B.
social anxiety disorder.

C.
language disorder.

D.
oppositional defiant disorder.
The correct answer is B.

As selective mutism is frequently associated with anxiety in social situations. Answer A is incorrect, as this condition is not linked to childhood-onset fluency disorder (stuttering). Answers C and D are also incorrect, as selective mutism is not directly linked to language disorder or oppositional defiant disorder.
400
Question ID #1595:
Helping clients become aware of the presence and impact of negative self-statements, or __________, is the central focus of cognitive therapy.

Select one:

A.
automatic thoughts

B.
voluntary thoughts

C.
automatic speech

D.
automatic action
The correct answer is A.

Automatic thoughts are instantaneous, habitual self-statements that are reflexive, knee-jerk responses to certain situations. Building awareness of the presence and impact of negative automatic thoughts is the central focus of cognitive therapy. Voluntary thoughts (answer B) are thoughts that are under our conscious control and based on an analysis of the situation. Automatic speech (answer C) is speech that erupts involuntarily; it sometimes occurs as a consequence of senility, dementia, or heightened emotional states and in a small percentage of people suffering from Tourette's syndrome. Automatic actions (answer D) are acts performed without requiring attention or conscious awareness.
400
Question ID #1153:
The editor of a local newspaper has asked you to write an article on attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) for an upcoming issue. While talking about the assignment on the phone, he mentions that his son has ADHD and needs some therapy. Which of the following is the best response in this situation?

Select one:

A.
Offer to see the editor's son at a reduced cost as a favor for publishing your article

B.
Offer to see his son, but only after the article has been published

C.
Do not offer therapy for his son, but refer him to someone else who is competent in treating ADHD

D.
Tell him that treating his son would be a conflict of interest
The correct answer is C.

As it avoids multiple relationships and appropriately provides alternative care for the child. Answer A would violate the prohibition regarding paying members of the media and would create a problematic multiple relationship. Answer B is incorrect; a problematic multiple relationship exists that would impair the psychologist's ability to be objective as the child's therapist. Answer D is not a poor response but does not provide a solution to the problem.
400
Question ID #2613:
In Fiedler's contingency model of leadership, leader effectiveness is a function of the leader's style and the situation. Which of the following is/are NOT (a) situational variable(s) in Fiedler's model?

Select one:

A.
Legitimate/position power

B.
Task simplicity/complexity

C.
Relationships of co-workers to each other and to leadership

D.
Decision-making styles and situational variables
The correct answer is D.

The normative model of leadership (answer D) is Vroom and Yetton's (1978) model, which focuses on various decision-making styles and situational variables. It is assumed that follower commitment and acceptance are a function of acceptance of the leader's decision, and that acceptance is a function of participation in the decision-making. Fiedler's (1978) contingency model holds that leadership is the function of both the person and the situation. According to Fiedler, leaders fall roughly into one of two style categories: Task-oriented and relationship-oriented. Leader effectiveness depends on the interaction between the leader's style and situational variables. Those variables include presence or absence of legitimate position power, state of inter- and intrapersonal relations within the organization, and task complexity (answers A, B, and C).
400
Question ID #142:
While participating in a discussion in his seminar class, Tim comes up with a few points he wants to make. When it is his turn to speak, he makes most of his points, but then he cannot remember the last one. This is an example of:

Select one:

A.
Retroactive interference.

B.
Proactive interference.

C.
Output interference.

D.
Retrieval failure.
The correct answer is C.

In output interference, the act of recalling information from memory interferes with the ability to recall other information by displacing it from working memory (or short-term memory). In this example, Tim's working memory was used to keep track of what he was saying while he made his first few points, which used some of his working memory capacity. At the same time, he was also prevented from mentally rehearsing his remaining points while he spoke; thus, the last one may have been forgotten due the limited duration of working memory. Retroactive interference (answer A) occurs when new memories interfere with the ability to recall older memories, whereas proactive interference (answer B) occurs when old memories interfere with the ability to recall new information. Retrieval failure (answer D) is an inability to recollect information that is known to be available in memory; in the present example, Tim does not have knowledge that the information is still available in memory.
500
Question ID #1210:
Since the Global Assessment of Functioning or (GAF) is no longer included in the DSM-5, what would one use to assess level of disability?

Select one:

A.
WHO Disability Assessment Schedule

B.
WHO Disabled Observation Scale

C.
WHO Disabled Achievement Schedule

D.
WHO Disabled Diagnosis Scale
The correct answer is A.

The GAF is no longer used in the DSM-5 and it is suggested that the WHO Disability Assessment Schedule (WHODAS) be used to assess disability level. Answers B, C, and D are all false.
500
Question ID #1818:
Which of the following statements regarding schizophrenia is incorrect?

Select one:

A.
The dopamine theory states that brain injury to the prefrontal cortex either underactivates dopamine and causes negative symptoms or continues to release mesolimbic dopamine neurons and causes positive symptoms.

B.
Schizophrenia is primarily found in middle- to upper-class white families with high stress and high expression of emotion.

C.
Enlarged ventricles are not specific to individuals with schizophrenia.

D.
Twin studies have supported the contention that genetics may play a role in the transmission of schizophrenia across generations.
The correct answer is B.

In contrast to answer B, schizophrenia is most frequently found in people with the lowest socioeconomic status and is linked to either a downward mobility resulting from the impact of the disease or the triggering of a predisposition due to trauma faced in extreme poverty. Answer A, highlighting the dopamine hypothesis, is correct in that the underactivity of dopaminergic neurons causes negative symptoms or continues to release the mesolimbic dopaminergic neurons to cause positive symptoms. In anatomical studies of individuals with schizophrenia, enlarged ventricles (answer C) have been identified, but this is not specific to schizophrenia. Twin studies have supported the role of a genetic predisposition (answer D) in the development of schizophrenia, which can therefore be transmitted across generations.
500
Question ID #1162:
Dr. Simon is supervising Mr. Jones, a psychology intern at a medical center. In supervision, Mr. Jones discloses that his client revealed a plan to commit suicide that night and because the session was running over, Mr. Jones responded only by saying that they were out of time. Which of the following would NOT be an appropriate action for Dr. Simon to take, given his role as Mr. Jones' supervisor?

Select one:

A.
Complete a negative written note regarding Mr. Jones' ability to respond to emergency situations

B.
Direct Mr. Jones to contact the client for an immediate follow-up crisis session

C.
Give Mr. Jones didactic training on responding to suicidal clients

D.
Instruct Mr. Jones to schedule an appointment with the patient first thing the following day to assess the level of intent
The correct answer is D.

A supervisor has the multiple roles of evaluator and teacher, and also bears responsibility for the clinical care of the supervisee's clients. Therefore, answers A, B, and C are advisable in this situation. Given the uncertainty of the risk of suicide, waiting until the following session to determine the patient's intent (answer D) is contraindicated.
500
Question ID #2623:
The __________ provides mentally and physically disabled individuals with protection from employment discrimination.

Select one:

A.
Equal Employment Opportunity Commission

B.
Civil Rights Act of 1964

C.
Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990

D.
Age Discrimination of Employment Act
The correct answer is C.

The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) of 1990 requires that employers with 15 or more employees (APA) give applicants with disabilities the same consideration for a position that a non-disabled applicant would receive. In addition, when it is deemed feasible, an employer must make reasonable accommodations for employees with mental or physical disabilities who are otherwise able to perform their job duties. Accommodations represent modifications made to the work environment that allow persons with disabilities equal employment opportunities. The Civil Rights Act of 1964 (answer B) protects demographic groups such as African-Americans, Hispanics, and women from employment discrimination. The Age Discrimination in Employment Act (answer D) protects individuals 40 years or older from discrimination in regards to selection, termination, pay, and training. The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC; answer A) is an investigative agency of the federal government that seeks to confirm or not confirm instances of discrimination and to seek resolution of discrimination claims. The EEOC does not have the authority to enforce protection laws.
500
Question ID #1588:
Apraxia involves an inability to perform __________ and __________ tasks.

Select one:

A.
purposeful; learned

B.
learned; involuntary

C.
involuntary; spontaneous

D.
explicit memory; implicit memory
The correct answer is A.

Apraxia is a neurological disorder that affects a person's ability to perform learned and purposeful movements. These deficits occur despite the fact that there is no physiological impairment in motor function, sensation, attention, coordination, motivation, or comprehension. Answer B is incorrect because although apraxia refers to the inability to perform learned movement, it is not involuntary, invalidating the whole answer. Answer C is incorrect because apraxia is not involuntary and is unrelated to being spontaneous. Memory is not affected in apraxia; therefore, answer D is incorrect.




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